Eole Air Passion

AIRCREW - Licences de Pilote et Certifications Diverses

Règlement Européen n° 1178/2011 AIRCREW : Licences de Pilote et Certifications Diverses
Consolidé au 08/04/2020

Annexe I : [PART FCL] - Flight Crew Licencing

SUBPART A – GENERAL REQUIREMENTS

FCL.001 Competent authority - Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

For the purpose of this Part, the competent authority shall be an authority designated by the Member State to whom a person applies for the issue of pilot licences or associated ratings or certificates.

FCL.005 Scope - Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

This Part establishes the requirements for the issue of pilot licences and associated ratings and certificates and the conditions of their validity and use.

GM1 FCL.005 Scope - ED Decision 2020/005/R

INTERPRETATIVE MATERIAL

  1. Whenever licences, ratings, approvals or certificates are mentioned in Part-FCL, these are meant to be valid licences, ratings, approvals or certificates issued in accordance with Part-FCL. In all other cases, these documents are specified.
  2. Whenever a reference is made to Member States to mutual recognition of licences, ratings, approvals or certificates, this means a European Union Member State and states associated to the Agency in accordance with Article 55 of the Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 20 February 2008.
  3. Whenever an inclusive or exclusive ‘or’ is used, it should be understood within the context of the whole meaning of the requirement in which it is used.

FCL.010 Definitions - Regulation (EU) 2020/359

Aux fins de la présente partie, les définitions suivantes s’appliquent :

  • Un « avion » désigne un aéronef moto propulsé à voilure fixe et plus lourd que l’air, sustenté en vol par des réactions aérodynamiques sur la voilure.
  • Un « aéronef » désigne tout appareil qui peut se soutenir dans l’atmosphère grâce à des réactions de l’air autres que les réactions de l’air sur la surface de la terre.
  • Le « sens de l'air (Airmanship) » désigne une capacité d'agir avec discernement et d'utiliser des compétences et comportements pertinents, ainsi que des connaissances approfondies afin d’atteindre des objectifs de vol.
  • Une « évaluation des compétences » désigne la démonstration des aptitudes, des connaissances et des attitudes pour la délivrance initiale, la prorogation ou le renouvellement d’une qualification d’instructeur ou d’un certificat d’examinateur.
  • Une « catégorie d’aéronef » désigne une classification des aéronefs selon des caractéristiques de base définies, par exemple avion, aéronef à sustentation motorisée, hélicoptère, dirigeable, planeur ou ballon libre.
  • Une « classe d’avion » désigne une classification des avions monopilotes qui ne demandent pas de qualification de type.
  • La « compétence » désigne une combinaison d’aptitudes, de connaissances et d’attitudes nécessaires pour effectuer une tâche selon la norme prescrite.
  • Un « élément de compétence » désigne une action constituant une tâche qui a un événement déclencheur et un événement de cessation définissant clairement ses limites et un aboutissement observable.
  • Une « unité de compétence » désigne une fonction bien délimitée comprenant un certain nombre d’éléments de compétence.
  • Le « vol en campagne » désigne un vol entre un point de départ et un point d’arrivée, selon une route prédéfinie, en appliquant des procédures de navigation standard.
  • Le « temps de vol d’instruction en double commande » désigne le temps de vol ou temps aux instruments au sol au cours duquel une personne reçoit une instruction au vol d’un instructeur habilité.
  • Une « erreur » désigne une action ou inaction de l’équipage de conduite qui donne lieu à des écarts par rapport aux intentions ou attentes en termes d’organisation ou de vol.
  • La « gestion des erreurs » désigne le processus consistant à déceler les erreurs et à y remédier en prenant des mesures qui permettent d’en réduire les conséquences ou de les éviter, ainsi que d’atténuer la probabilité d’erreurs ou de situations indésirables de l’aéronef.
  • Une « menace » désigne des événements ou des erreurs qui se produisent en dehors de l’influence de l’équipage de conduite, qui augmentent la complexité opérationnelle et qu’il faut gérer pour maintenir la marge de sécurité.
  • La « gestion des menaces » désigne le processus consistant à déceler les menaces et à y remédier en prenant des mesures qui permettent d’en réduire les conséquences ou de les éviter, ainsi que d’atténuer la probabilité d’erreurs ou de situations indésirables de l’aéronef.
  • Le « temps de vol » :
    • dans le cas des avions, des motoplaneurs et des aéronefs à sustentation motorisée, ce terme désigne le temps total depuis le moment où l’aéronef commence à se déplacer en vue de décoller jusqu’au moment où il s’immobilise à la fin du vol
    • ... (voir règlement)
  • La « nuit » désigne la période située entre la fin du crépuscule civil et le début de l’aube civile ou toute autre période entre le coucher et le lever du soleil, tel que prescrit par l’autorité adéquate.
  • Le « commandant de bord (Pilot-in-Command – PIC) » fait référence au pilote désigné pour le commandement et chargé de conduire le vol en toute sécurité.
  • Le « pilote commandant de bord sous supervision (Pilot-in-command under supervision – PICUS) » fait référence au copilote remplissant les tâches et les fonctions d’un pilote commandant de bord sous la supervision du pilote commandant de bord.
  • Un « pilote privé » désigne un pilote détenteur d’une licence ne permettant pas le pilotage d’aéronefs lors de vols exploités contre rémunération, à l’exclusion des activités d’instruction ou d’examen, comme établi dans la présente partie.
  • Un « contrôle de compétences » désigne une épreuve pratique d’aptitude, effectuée en vue de proroger ou de renouveler des qualifications ou des privilèges et comportant tout examen oral susceptible d’être exigé.
  • Une « évaluation des compétences » désigne la démonstration des aptitudes, des connaissances et des attitudes pour la délivrance initiale, la prorogation ou le renouvellement d’une qualification d’instructeur ou d’un certificat d’examinateur
  • Un « renouvellement » (par exemple, d’une qualification ou d’une autorisation) désigne un acte administratif effectué après qu’une qualification ou autorisation est arrivée en fin de validité et qui a pour effet de renouveler les privilèges de cette qualification ou autorisation pour une nouvelle période donnée, sous réserve de satisfaire aux exigences spécifiées.
  • Une « prorogation » (par exemple, d’une qualification ou d’une autorisation) désigne un acte administratif effectué pendant la période de validité d’une qualification ou d’une autorisation et qui permet au titulaire de continuer à exercer les privilèges de cette qualification ou autorisation pour une nouvelle période donnée, sous réserve de satisfaire aux exigences spécifiées.
  • Un « planeur » désigne un aéronef plus lourd que l’air sustenté en vol par des réactions aérodynamiques sur sa voilure et dont le vol libre ne dépend d’aucun moteur.
  • Un « planeur motorisé » désigne un planeur équipé d’un ou de plusieurs moteurs et qui, avec son ou ses moteurs à l’arrêt, possède les caractéristiques d’un planeur.
  • Un « motoplaneur (Touring Motor Glider – TMG) » désigne, sauf indication contraire à la suite du processus de certification conformément à l’annexe I (partie 21) du règlement (UE) no 748/2012, une classe spécifique de planeurs motorisés pourvus d’un moteur intégré et non rétractable et d’une hélice non rétractable. Il doit être capable de décoller et de s’élever grâce à la puissance de son moteur conformément à son manuel de vol.
  • Un « aéronef monopilote » désigne un aéronef certifié pour une exploitation par un seul pilote.
  • Un « examen pratique » désigne une épreuve pratique d’aptitude, effectuée en vue d’octroyer une licence ou une qualification et comportant tout examen oral susceptible d’être exigé.
  • Le « temps de vol en solo » désigne le temps de vol pendant lequel l’aspirant pilote est le seul occupant d’un aéronef.
  • Une « menace » désigne des événements ou des erreurs qui se produisent en dehors de l’influence de l’équipage de conduite, qui augmentent la complexité opérationnelle et qu’il faut gérer pour maintenir la marge de sécurité.
  • La « gestion des menaces » désigne le processus consistant à déceler les menaces et à y remédier en prenant des mesures qui permettent d’en réduire les conséquences ou de les éviter, ainsi que d’atténuer la probabilité d’erreurs ou de situations indésirables de l’aéronef.
  • Le « type d’aéronef » désigne une classification d’aéronefs qui exige une qualification de type, comme défini dans les données d'adéquation opérationnelle établies conformément à la partie 21 et qui inclut l'ensemble des aéronefs offrant des caractéristiques fondamentales identiques, y compris toutes les modifications qui y sont apportées, à l’exception de celles qui entraînent un changement dans le maniement ou les caractéristiques de vol.
  • Une « liste des qualifications de type et des mentions de licence » désigne une liste publiée par l’Agence sur la base des résultats de l’évaluation des OSD et contenant les classes d’avions et les types d’aéronefs aux fins de la délivrance de licences aux membres d’équipage de conduite.
  • La « VNAV » désigne la navigation verticale.

GM1 FCL.010 Liste des acronymes

ABRÉVIATIONS

Les abréviations suivantes s’appliquent aux Moyens acceptables de Conformité et aux Documents d’Orientation à la Partie-FCL :

A Avion
AC courant alternatif
ACAS Système anti-abordage embarqué
ADF Radiocompas
ADS Standard de conception en aéronautique
AFCS Système de contrôle de vol automatique
AFM Manuel de vol avion
AGL Au-dessus du sol
AIC Publication d’Information aéronautique
AIP Publication d’Information aéronautique
AIRAC Publication aéronautique sur les règlements et le contrôle
AIS Services d’information aéronautique
AMC moyens acceptables de conformité
AeMC Centre d’expertise médicale
AME Expert aéro médical
AOM Manuel d’exploitation aéronef
APU unité de puissance auxiliaire
As Dirigeable
ATC Service du contrôle de la circulation aérienne
ATIS Système automatique de transmission des informations de région terminale
ATO Organisme de formation approuvé
ATP Pilote de ligne
ATPL Licence de Pilote de ligne
ATS Service du contrôle de la circulation aérienne
AUM Masse totale
B Ballon
BCAR Exigences de navigabilité britanniques
BEM Masse à vide de base
BPL Licence de Pilote de Ballon
CAS Vitesse
CAT Turbulence de ciel clair
CB-IR Formation IR basée sur compétences
CDI Indicateur de déviation de route
CFI Chef Instructeur Vol
CG Centre de Gravité
CGI Chef Instructeur Sol
CP Co-pilote
CPL Licence de Pilote Commercial
CRE Examinateur de qualification de Classe
CRI Instructeur qualification de Classe
CRM Gestion des ressources de l’équipage
CS Spécifications de Certification
CQB Banque Centrale de Questions
DC Courant Continu
DF Goniométrie
DME Équipement de mesure de distance
DPATO Point défini après le décollage
DPBL Point défini avant l’atterrissage
DR Navigation à l’estime
LO Objectifs de formation
LOFT Entraînement vol en lignem Mètre
MCC Travail en équipage
MCCI Instructeur de formation au travail en équipage
ME Multimoteur
MEL Liste Minimale d’Équipement
MEP Multimoteur Piston
MET Multimoteur Turbine
METAR Observation Météorologique d’Aérodrome
MI Instructeur de qualification montagne
MP Multipilote
MPA Multipilote avion
MPL Licence multipilotes
MPH Hélicoptère multipilote
MTOM Masse maximale au décollage
NDB Radiophare Non directionnel
NM Mile Nautiques
NOTAM Notifications à l’usage des pilotes
NOTAR Sans Rotor de queue
OAT Température de l’air extérieur
OBS Sélecteur de route omnidirectionnelle
OEI Vol avec un moteur en panne
OGE Hors effets de sol
OML Limitation opérationnelle multipilote
OSL Limitation opérationnelle avec un pilote de sécurité
OTD Autres entraîneurs au vol
PAPI Indicateur de pente de précision
PF Pilote aux commandes
PIC Pilote commandant de bord
PICUS Pilote commandant de bord sous supervision
PL Aéronef à sustentation motorisée
PNF Pilote non aux commandes
PPL Licence de pilote privé
QDM Cap magnétique
QFE Pression atmosphérique à l’altitude de l’aérodrome
QNH Calage altimétrique pour obtenir l’altitude de l’aérodrome depuis le sol
RNAV Radio Navigation
RPM Tours par minute
RRPM Tours par minute du rotor
R/T Radiotéléphonie
S Planeur
SATCOM Satellite de communications

SE Monomoteur
SEP Monomoteur Piston
SET Monomoteur Turbo propulseur
SFE Examinateur sur entraîneur synthétique de vol
SFI Instructeur sur entraîneur synthétique de vol
SID Route de départ standard
SIGMET évènements météorologiques significatifs
SLPC Manette de puissance unique
SOP Procédures d’exploitation standard
DTO Organisation de formation déclarée
EFIS Système électronique d’instruments de vol
EIR Qualification En route instrument (EIR)
EOL Atterrissage moteur arrêté
ERPM Nombre de tours moteurs par minute
ETA Heure estimée d’arrivée
ETOPS Standards d’exploitation d’avions bimoteurs sur longues distances
FAF Repère d’approche Finale
FAR Règlements Aéronautiques de l’administration des USA
FCL Règles relatives aux licences du personnel navigant
FE Examinateur en vol
F/E Ingénieur Navigant
FEM Manuel de l’examinateur en vol
FFS Simulateur
FI Instructeur de vol
FIE Examinateur d’instructeur de vol
FIS Service d’Information en vol
FMC Calculateur de conduite du vol
FMS Système de gestion de vol
FNPT Entraineur à la navigation et aux procédures
FS Simulateur de vol
FSTD Simulateurs d’entraînement au vol ft Pieds
FTD Système d’entraînement au vol
G Forces de gravité
GLONASS Global Orbiting Navigation Satellite Système
GM Document d’orientation
GNSS Global Navigation Satellite Systèmes
GPS Système de navigation par satellite
H Hélicoptère
HF Haute Fréquence
HOFCS High Order Flight Control Système
HPA Avion Hautes Performances
hrs Heures
HUMS santé et surveillance de l’utilisation du système
HT Responsable pédagogique
IAS Vitesse Air Indiquée
ICAO Organisation de l’Aviation Civile Internationale
IGE En effets de sol
IFR Règles de vol aux instruments
ILS Système d’atterrissage aux instruments
IMC Conditions météorologiques de vol aux instruments
IR Qualification de vol aux Instruments
IRE Examinateur de vol aux instruments
IRI Instructeur de vol aux instruments
ISA International Standard Atmosphère
JAR Exigences communes pour l’aéronautique
kg Kilogramme
LAPL Licence de Pilote d’avion léger
LDP Point de Décision à l’atterrissage
LMT Heure locale
SP Monopilote
SPA Avion Monopilote
SPH Hélicoptère Monopilote
SPIC Elève pilote commandant de bord
SPL Licence de pilote de planeur
SSR Radar de surveillance secondaire
STI Instructeur pour la formation sur entraîneur synthétique
TAF (Terminal Area Forecasts) Prévisions d’aérodrome
TAS Vitesse vraie
TAWS Dispositif avertisseur de proximité du sol
TDP Point de décision au décollage
TK Theoretical knowledge
TEM Gestion des erreurs et des menaces
TMG Planeur motorisé
TORA Distance de roulement disponible au décollage
TODA Distance disponible au décollage
TR Qualification de type
TRE Examinateur qualification de type
TRI Instructeur de qualification de type
UTC Temps universel coordonné
V Vitesse
VASI Indicateur de pente visuel
VFR Règles de vol à vue
VHF Très haute fréquence
VMC Conditions météorologiques de vol à vue
VOR Émetteur omnidirectionnel VHF
ZFTT Cours de qualification de type sans vol
ZFM Masse sans carburant

GM2 FCL.010 Definitions – lateral and vertical navigation - ED Decision 2016/008/R

Lateral and vertical navigation guidance refers to the guidance provided either by:

  1. a ground-based radio navigation aid; or
  2. computer-generated navigation data from ground-based, space-based, self-contained navigation aids or a combination of these.

GM3 FCL.010 Definitions - ED Decision 2016/008/R

UPSET PREVENTION AND RECOVERY TRAINING (UPRT) DEFINITIONS

In the context of UPRT, the following abbreviations apply to the Acceptable Means of Compliance and Guidance Material to Part-FCL:

  • ‘Advanced UPRT’ refers to the advanced UPRT course in accordance with point FCL.745.A.
  • ‘Aeroplane upset’ refers to an undesired aircraft state characterised by unintentional divergences from parameters normally experienced during operations. An aeroplane upset may involve pitch and/or bank angle divergences as well as inappropriate airspeeds for the conditions.
  • ‘Angle of Attack (AoA)’ refers to the angle between the oncoming air, or relative wind, and a defined reference line on the aeroplane or wing.
  • ‘Approach-to-stall’ refers to flight conditions bordered by the stall warning and stall.
  • ‘Basic UPRT’ refers to the UPRT elements and exercises integrated into training courses for the issue of a CPL, MPL or Phases 1 to 3 of the integrated ATP course.
  • ‘Developed upset’ refers to a condition meeting the definition of an aeroplane upset.
  • ‘Developing upset’ refers to any time the aeroplane begins to unintentionally diverge from the intended flight path or airspeed.
  • ‘Energy state’ refers to how much of each kind of energy (kinetic, potential or chemical) the aeroplane has available at any given time.
  • ‘First indication of a stall’ refers to the initial aural, tactile or visual sign of a stall event which can be either naturally or synthetically induced.
  • ‘Flight crew resilience’ refers to the ability of a flight crew member to recognise, absorb and adapt to disruptions.
  • ‘Fidelity level’ refers to the level of realism assigned to each of the defined FSTD features.
  • ‘Flight path’ refers to the trajectory or path of the aeroplane travelling through the air over a given space of time.
  • ‘Flight path management’ refers to active manipulation, using either the aeroplane’s automation or manual handling, to command the aeroplane’s flight controls in order to direct the aeroplane along a desired trajectory.
  • ‘FSTD validation envelope’ refers to the envelope consisting of the following three subdivisions:
    1. Flight test validated region : This is the region of the flight envelope which has been validated with flight test data, typically by comparing the performance of the FSTD against the flight test data through tests incorporated in the qualification test guide (QTG) and other flight test data utilised to further extend the model beyond the minimum requirements. Within this region, there is high confidence that the simulator responds similarly to the aircraft. Note that this region is not strictly limited to what has been tested in the QTG; as long as the aerodynamics mathematical model has been conformed to the flight test results, that portion of the mathematical model can be considered to be within the flight test validated region.
    2. Wind tunnel and/or analytical region : This is the region of the flight envelope for which the FSTD has not been compared to flight test data, but for which there has been wind tunnel testing or the use of other reliable predictive methods (typically by the aircraft manufacturer) to define the aerodynamic model. Any extensions to the aerodynamic model that have been evaluated in accordance with the definition of an exemplar stall model (as described in the stall manoeuvre evaluation section) must be clearly indicated. Within this region, there is moderate confidence that the simulator will respond similarly to the aircraft.
    3. Extrapolated region : This is the region extrapolated beyond the flight test validated and wind tunnel/analytical regions. The extrapolation may be a linear extrapolation, a holding of the last value before the extrapolation began, or some other set of values. Whether this extrapolated data is provided by the aircraft or simulator manufacturer, it is a ‘best guess’ only. Within this region, there is low confidence that the simulator will respond similarly to the aircraft. Brief excursions into this region may still retain a moderate confidence level in FSTD fidelity; however, the instructor should be aware that the FSTD’s response may deviate from that of the actual aircraft.
  • ‘Load factor’ refers to the ratio of a specified load to the weight of the aeroplane, the former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic forces, propulsive forces or ground reactions.
  • ‘Loss of Control In-flight (LOC-I)’ refers to a categorisation of an accident or incident resulting from a deviation from the intended flight path.
  • ‘Manoeuvre-based training’ refers to training that focuses on a single event or manoeuvre in isolation.
  • ‘Negative training’ refers to training which unintentionally introduces incorrect information or invalid concepts, which could actually decrease rather than increase safety.
  • ‘Negative transfer of training’ refers to the application (and ‘transfer’) of what was learned in a training environment (i.e. a classroom, an FSTD) to normal practice, i.e. it describes the degree to which what was learned in training is applied to actual, normal practices. In this context, negative transfer of training refers to the inappropriate generalisation of knowledge and skills to a situation or setting in normal practice that does not equal the training situation or setting.
  • ‘Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM)’ refers to the original equipment manufacturer of an aircraft or associated parts or equipment or of parts or equipment installed on the basis of a supplemental type certificate (STC).
  • ‘Post-stall regime’ refers to flight conditions at an AoA greater than the critical AoA.
  • ‘Scenario-based training’ refers to training that incorporates manoeuvres into real-world experiences to cultivate practical flying skills in an operational environment.
  • ‘Stall’ refers to loss of lift caused by exceeding the aeroplane’s critical AoA.
  • Note: A stalled condition can exist at any attitude and airspeed, and may be recognised by continuous stall warning activation accompanied by at least one of the following:

    1. buffeting, which could be heavy at times;
    2. lack of pitch authority and/or roll control; and
    3. inability to arrest the descent rate.

    Note: It is possible that in certain conditions the stall warning may not be activated.

  • ‘Stall event’ refers to an occurrence whereby the aeroplane experiences conditions associated with an approach-to-stall or a stall.
  • ‘Stall (event) recovery procedure’ refers to the manufacturer-approved aeroplane-specific stall recovery procedures, such as those contained in the flight crew operations manual (FCOM). If an OEM-approved recovery procedure does not exist, the aeroplane-specific stall recovery procedure developed by the ATO, based on the stall recovery template, may be used.
  • ‘Stall warning’ refers to a natural or synthetic indication provided when approaching a stall that may include one or more of the following indications:
    1. aerodynamic buffeting (some aeroplanes will buffet more than others);
    2. reduced roll stability and aileron effectiveness;
    3. visual or aural cues and warnings;
    4. reduced elevator (pitch) authority;
    5. inability to maintain altitude or arrest rate of descent; and
    6. stick shaker activation (if installed).

    Note: A stall warning indicates an immediate need to reduce the AoA.

  • ‘Startle’ refers to the initial, short-term, involuntary physiological and cognitive reactions to an unexpected event that commence the normal human stress response.
  • ‘Stick pusher’ refers to any device that automatically applies a nose-down movement and pitch force to an aeroplane’s control columns to attempt to decrease the aeroplane’s AoA. Device activation may occur before or after aerodynamic stall, depending on the aeroplane type.
  • Note: A stick pusher is not installed on all aeroplane types.

  • ‘Stick shaker’ refers to a device that automatically vibrates the control column to warn the pilot of an approaching stall.
  • Note: A stick shaker is not installed on all aeroplane types.

  • ‘Stress (response)’ refers to the response to a threatening event that includes physiological, psychological and cognitive effects. These effects may range from positive to negative and can either enhance or decrease performance.
  • ‘Surprise’ refers to the emotionally based recognition of a difference in what was expected and what is actual.
  • ‘Train-to-proficiency’ refers to approved training designed to achieve end-state performance objectives, providing sufficient assurances that the trained individual is capable of consistently carrying out specific tasks safely and effectively.
  • Note: In the context of this definition, ‘train-to-proficiency’ can be replaced by ‘training-to-proficiency’.

  • ‘Type-specific UPRT’ refers to UPRT elements and exercises integrated into training courses for the issue of a class or type rating pursuant to Part-FCL or during recurrent or refresher training for a specific aeroplane class or type.
  • ‘Undesired aircraft state’ refers to flight-crew-induced aircraft position or speed deviation, misapplication of controls, or incorrect systems configuration, associated with a reduction in margins of safety.
  • Note (1): Undesired states can be managed effectively, restoring margins of safety, or flight crew response(s) can induce an additional error, incident or accident.

    Note (2): All countermeasures are necessary flight crew actions. However, some countermeasures to threats, errors and undesired aircraft states that flight crew employ are built upon ‘hard’/systemic-based resources provided by the aviation system.

  • ‘Unsafe situation’ refers to a situation which has led to an unacceptable reduction in safety margin.
  • ‘Unusual attitude’ refers to an aircraft in flight intentionally exceeding the parameters normally experienced in line operations or training, as applicable.
  • ‘Incipient spin’ refers to a transient flight condition in the post-stall regime where an initial, uncommanded roll in excess of 45° has resulted from yaw asymmetry during a stall and which, if recovery action is not taken, will lead rapidly to a developing spin. Prompt recovery during this incipient spin stage will normally result in an overall heading change, from pre-stall conditions, of not more than 180°.
  • ‘Developing spin’ refers to a flight condition in the post-stall regime where the aeroplane exhibits abnormal, but varying, rates of yaw and roll, together with changing pitch attitude, following an incipient spin but before the establishment of a developed spin. A developing spin follows an unrecovered incipient spin and will usually persist, in the absence of any recovery action, until a developed spin ensues.
  • ‘Developed spin’ refers to a flight condition in the post-stall regime where the aeroplane has achieved approximately constant pitch attitude, yaw rate and roll rate on a descending flight path. In transition from a stall with significant, persistent yaw, with no recovery action, to attaining a developed spin, the aeroplane is likely to have rolled through at least 540°.
  • ‘FSTD training envelope’ refers to the high and moderate confidence regions of the FSTD validation envelope.

GM4 FCL.010 Definitions

DEFINITIONS IN GM3 FCL.010 RELATED TO THE POST-STALL REGIME

The definitions for ‘incipient spin’, 'developing spin’ and ‘developed spin’ in GM3 FCL.010 relate to the post-stall regime in aeroplanes that might typically be used in the context of the advanced UPRT in accordance with point FCL.745.A. The definitions are not intended for application to commercial air transport operations.

GM5 FCL.010 Definitions

AVAILABLE AND ACCESSIBLE FSTDs

  1. To determine the availability of an FSTD, the following additional criteria should be taken into account. The FSTD should be:
    1. certified by a competent authority within the scope of the Basic Regulation;
    2. approved by the competent authority for use within the scope of the Basic Regulation;
    3. representative of the operator’s or applicant’s aircraft class or type, and serviceable; and
    4. representative of the configuration of the operator’s or applicant’s aircraft.
  2. To determine the accessibility of an FSTD, the following additional criteria should be taken into account. The FSTD should be:
    1. accessible to the instructor or examiner of the applicant;
    2. accessible for use within the scope of the candidate’s/operator’s training and checking activities; and
    3. accessible to allow normal programming and prevent excessive scheduling disruptions within the operator’s crew roster patterns.
  3. ‘irrespective of any time considerations’ means that the FSTD may be used at any time during day or night.
  4. If an FSTD is not available or accessible, mitigating measures to ensure the required level of safety should be agreed with the competent authority before testing or checking the applicant in an aircraft.

FCL.015 Application and issue, revalidation and renewal of licences, ratings and certificates - Regulation (EU) 2020/2193

  1. An application for the issue, revalidation or renewal of pilot licences and associated ratings and certificates as well as any amendment thereto shall be submitted to the competent authority in a form and manner established by that authority. The application shall be accompanied by evidence that applicants comply with the requirements for the issue, revalidation or renewal of the licence or certificate as well as associated ratings or endorsements established in this Annex (Part-FCL) and in Annex IV (Part-MED).
  2. Unless otherwise specified in this Annex, any limitation or extension of the privileges granted by a licence, rating or certificate shall be endorsed in the licence or certificate by the competent authority.
  3. A person shall not hold at any time more than one licence per category of aircraft issued in accordance with this Part.
  4. A licence holder shall submit applications in accordance with paragraph (a) to the competent authority designated by the Member State in which his or her licence was issued in accordance with this Annex (Part-FCL), Annex III (Part-BFCL) to Commission Regulation (EU) 2018/395 or with Annex III (Part-SFCL) to Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2018/1976, as applicable.
  5. The holder of a licence that has been issued in accordance with this Annex (Part-FCL) may apply to the competent authority designated by another Member State for a change of competent authority relating to all licences held, as specified in paragraph (d).
  6. For the issue of a licence, rating or certificate the applicant shall apply not later than 6 months after having succeeded at the skill test or assessment of competence.
  7. Training completed in aircraft or in FSTDs in accordance with Annex III (Part-ORO) to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 shall be taken into account for the experience and revalidation requirements established in this Annex (Part-FCL).’;

AMC1 FCL.015 Application and issue of licences, ratings and certificates - ED Decision 2011/016/R

APPLICATION AND REPORT FORMS

Common application and report forms can be found:

  1. For skill tests, proficiency checks for issue, revalidation or renewal of LAPL, BPL, SPL, PPL, CPL and IR in AMC1 to Appendix 7.
  2. For training, skill tests or proficiency checks for ATPL, MPL and class and type ratings, in AMC1 to Appendix 9.
  3. For assessments of competence for instructors, in AMC5 FCL.935.

FCL.020 Student pilot - Regulation (EU) 2020/359

  1. A student pilot shall not fly solo unless authorised to do so and supervised by a flight instructor.
  2. Before his or her first solo flight, a student pilot shall be at least 16 years of age.

FCL.025 Theoretical knowledge examinations for the issue of licences and ratings - Regulation (EU) 2020/359

  1. Responsibilities of the applicant
    1. Applicants shall take the entire set of theoretical knowledge examinations for a specific licence or rating under the responsibility of the same Member State’s competent authority
    2. Applicants shall only take the theoretical knowledge examination when recommended by the declared training organisation (DTO) or the approved training organisation (ATO) responsible for their training, once they have completed the appropriate elements of the training course of theoretical knowledge instruction to a satisfactory standard.
    3. The recommendation by a DTO or an ATO shall be valid for 12 months. If the applicant has failed to attempt at least one theoretical knowledge examination paper within this period of validity, the need for further training shall be determined by the DTO or the ATO, based on the needs of the applicant.
  2. Pass standards
    1. A pass in a theoretical knowledge examination paper will be awarded to an applicant achieving at least 75 % of the marks allocated to that paper. No penalty marking shall be applied.
    2. Unless otherwise determined in this Part, an applicant has successfully completed the required theoretical knowledge examination for the appropriate pilot licence or rating if he or she has passed all the required theoretical knowledge examination papers within a period of 18 months counted from the end of the calendar month when the applicant first attempted an examination.
    3. If an applicant for the ATPL theoretical knowledge examination, or for the issue of a commercial pilot licence (CPL), an instrument rating (IR) or an en route instrument rating (EIR) has failed to pass one of the theoretical knowledge examination papers within four attempts, or has failed to pass all papers within either six sittings or within the period mentioned in point (b)(2), he or she shall retake the complete set of theoretical knowledge examination papers.
    4. If applicants for the issue of a light aircraft pilot licence (LAPL), a private pilot licence (PPL), a sailplane pilot licence (SPL) or a balloon pilot licence (BPL) have failed to pass one of the theoretical knowledge examination papers within four attempts or have failed to pass all papers within the period mentioned in point (b)(2), they shall retake the complete set of theoretical knowledge examination papers.
    5. Before retaking the theoretical knowledge examinations, applicants shall undertake further training at a DTO or an ATO. The extent and scope of the training needed shall be determined by the DTO or the ATO, based on the needs of the applicants.
  3. Validity period
    1. The successful completion of the theoretical knowledge examinations will be valid:
      1. for the issue of a light aircraft pilot licence or a private pilot licence, for a period of 24 months;
      2. for the issue of a commercial pilot licence, instrument rating (IR) or en route instrument rating (EIR), for a period of 36 months;
      3. the periods in (i) and (ii) shall be counted from the day when the pilot successfully completes the theoretical knowledge examination, in accordance with (b)(2).

      Les périodes indiquées aux points i) et ii) débuteront à partir du jour où les pilotes auront réussi l’examen théorique, conformément au point b) 2).

    2. The completion of the airline transport pilot licence (ATPL) theoretical knowledge examinations will remain valid for the issue of an ATPL for a period of 7 years from the last validity date of:
      1. an IR entered in the licence; or
      2. in the case of helicopters, a helicopter’s type rating entered in that licence.

GM1 FCL.025 Theoretical knowledge examinations for the issue of licences - ED Decision 2020/005/R

TERMINOLOGY

The meaning of the following terms used in FCL.025 should be as follows:

  1. ‘Entire set of examinations’: an examination in all subjects required by the licence level.
  2. ‘Examination’: the demonstration of knowledge in one or more examination papers.
  3. ‘Examination paper’: a set of questions, which covers one subject required by the licence level or rating, to be answered by a candidate for examination.
  4. ‘Attempt’: a try to pass a specific paper.
  5. ‘Sitting’: a period of time established by the competent authority within which a candidate can take an examination. This period should not exceed 10 consecutive days. Only one attempt at each examination paper is allowed in one sitting.

AMC1 FCL.025(a)(2) Theoretical knowledge examinations for the issue of licences and ratings - ED Decision 2018/001/R

COMPLETION OF THE AREA 100 KSA ASSESSMENT BEFORE FINAL EXAMINATION

Before being recommended by an ATO to sit the final examination paper at the first attempt, an applicant for a professional licence should have successfully completed the applicable Area 100 KSA summative assessments and mental maths test at the ATO.

FCL.030 Practical skill test - Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

  1. Before a skill test for the issue of a licence, rating or certificate is taken, the applicant shall have passed the required theoretical knowledge examination, except in the case of applicants undergoing a course of integrated flying training.
  2. In any case, the theoretical knowledge instruction shall always have been completed before the skill tests are taken.

  3. Except for the issue of an airline transport pilot licence, the applicant for a skill test shall be recommended for the test by the organisation/person responsible for the training, once the training is completed. The training records shall be made available to the examiner.

FCL.035 Crediting of flight time and theoretical knowledge - Regulation (EU) No 245/2193

  1. Crediting of flight time
    1. Unless otherwise specified in this Part, flight time to be credited for a licence, rating or certificate shall have been flown in the same category of aircraft for which the licence, rating or certificate is sought.
    2. PIC or under instruction.
      1. An applicant for a licence, rating or certificate shall be credited in full with all solo, dual instruction or PIC flight time towards the total flight time required for the licence, rating or certificate.
      2. A graduate of an ATP integrated training course is entitled to be credited with up to 50 hours of student pilot-in-command instrument time towards the PIC time required for the issue of the airline transport pilot licence, commercial pilot licence and a multi-engine type or class rating.
      3. A graduate of a CPL/IR integrated training course is entitled to be credited with up to 50 hours of the student pilot-in-command instrument time towards the PIC time required for the issue of the commercial pilot licence and a multi-engine type or class rating.
    3. Flight time as co-pilot or PICUS. Unless otherwise determined in this Part, the holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot or PICUS, is entitled to be credited with all of the co-pilot time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence.
    4. All hours flown in aeroplanes or TMGs that are subject to a decision of a Member State taken in accordance with points (a) or (c) of Article 2(8) of Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 or that fall within the scope of Annex I to that Regulation shall be credited in full towards fulfilling the flight time requirements of point FCL.140.A(a)(1) and point FCL.740.A(b)(1)(ii) of this Annex, provided that the following conditions are met:
      1. the aeroplane or TMG concerned is of the same category and class as the Part-FCL aircraft in respect of which the hours flown are to be credited;
      2. in case of training flights with an instructor, the aeroplane or TMG used is subject to an authorisation specified in point ORA.ATO.135 of Annex VII (Part-ORA) or point DTO.GEN.240 of Annex VIII (Part-DTO).’;
  2. Crediting of theoretical knowledge
    1. An applicant having passed the theoretical knowledge examination for an airline transport pilot licence shall be credited with the theoretical knowledge requirements for the light aircraft pilot licence, the private pilot licence, the commercial pilot licence and, except in the case of helicopters, the IR and the EIR in the same category of aircraft.
    2. An applicant having passed the theoretical knowledge examination for a commercial pilot licence shall be credited with the theoretical knowledge requirement for a light aircraft pilot licence or a private pilot licence in the same category of aircraft.
    3. The holder of an IR or an applicant having passed the instrument theoretical knowledge examination for a category of aircraft shall be fully credited towards the requirements for the theoretical knowledge instruction and examination for an IR in another category of aircraft.
    4. The holder of a pilot licence shall be credited towards the requirements for theoretical knowledge instruction and examination for a licence in another category of aircraft in accordance with Appendix 1 to this Part.
    5. Notwithstanding point (b)(3), the holder of an IR(A) who has completed a competency-based modular IR(A) course or the holder of an EIR shall only be credited in full towards the requirements for theoretical knowledge instruction and examination for an IR in another category of aircraft when also having passed the theoretical knowledge instruction and examination for the IFR part of the course required in accordance with FCL.720.A.(b)(2)(i).

    This credit also applies to applicants for a pilot licence who have already successfully completed the theoretical knowledge examinations for the issue of that licence in another category of aircraft, as long as it is within the validity period specified in FCL.025(c).

FCL.040 Exercise of the privileges of licences - Regulation (EU) 2019/1747

The exercise of the privileges granted by a licence shall be dependent upon the validity of the ratings contained therein, if applicable, and of the medical certificate as appropriate to the privileges exercised.

FCL.045 Obligation to carry and present documents - Regulation (EU) 2018/1065

  1. A valid licence and a valid medical certificate shall always be carried by the pilot when exercising the privileges of the licence.
  2. The pilot shall also carry a personal identification document containing his/her photo.
  3. A pilot or a student pilot shall without undue delay present his/her flight time record for inspection upon request by an authorised representative of a competent authority.
  4. A student pilot shall carry on all solo cross-country flights evidence of the authorisation required by FCL.020(a).
  5. A pilot intending to fly outside Union territory on an aircraft registered in a Member State other than the one that issued the flight crew licence shall carry, in print or in electronic format, the latest issue of the ICAO attachment, which includes a reference to the ICAO registration number of the agreement that recognises the automatic validation of licences, as well as the list of States which are party to this agreement.

FCL.050 Recording of flight time - Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

The pilot shall keep a reliable record of the details of all flights flown in a form and manner established by the competent authority.

AMC1 FCL.050 Recording of flight time - ED Decision 2020/005/R

GENERAL

  1. The record of the flights flown should contain at least the following information:
    1. personal details: name(s) and address of the pilot;
    2. for each flight:
      1. name(s) of PIC;
      2. date of flight;
      3. place and time of departure and arrival;
      4. type, including make, model and variant, and registration of the aircraft;
      5. indication if the aircraft is SE or ME, if applicable;
      6. total time of flight;
      7. accumulated total time of flight.
    3. for each FSTD session, if applicable:
      1. type and qualification number of the training device;
      2. FSTD instruction;
      3. date;
      4. total time of session;
      5. accumulated total time.
    4. details on pilot function, namely PIC, including solo, SPIC and PICUS time, co-pilot, dual, FI or FE;
    5. Operational conditions, namely if the operation takes place at night, or is conducted under instrument flight rules.
  2. Logging of time:
    1. Temps de vol en tant que CDB :
      1. the holder of a licence may log as PIC time all of the flight time during which he or she is the PIC;
      2. the applicant for or the holder of a pilot licence may log as PIC time all solo flight time, flight time as SPIC and flight time under supervision provided that such SPIC time and flight time under supervision are countersigned by the instructor;
      3. the holder of an instructor certificate may log as PIC all flight time during which he or she acts as an instructor in an aircraft;
      4. the holder of an examiner’s certificate may log as PIC all flight time during which he or she occupies a pilot’s seat and acts as an examiner in an aircraft;
      5. a co-pilot acting as PICUS on an aircraft on which more than one pilot is required under the type certification of the aircraft or as required by operational requirements provided that such PICUS time is countersigned by the PIC;
      6. if the holder of a licence carries out a number of flights upon the same day returning on each occasion to the same place of departure and the interval between successive flights does not exceed 30 minutes, such series of flights may be recorded as a single entry.
    2. co-pilot flight time: the holder of a pilot licence occupying a pilot seat as co-pilot may log all flight time as co-pilot flight time on an aircraft on which more than one pilot is required under the type certification of the aircraft, or the regulations under which the flight is conducted;
    3. cruise relief co-pilot flight time: a cruise relief co-pilot may log all flight time as co-pilot when occupying a pilot’s seat;
    4. instruction time: a summary of all time logged by an applicant for a licence or rating as flight instruction, instrument flight instruction, instrument ground time, etc., may be logged if certified by the appropriately rated or authorised instructor from whom it was received;
    5. PICUS flight time: provided that the method of supervision is acceptable to the competent authority, a co-pilot may log as PIC flight time flown as PICUS when all the duties and functions of PIC on that flight were carried out in such a way that the intervention of the PIC in the interest of safety was not required.
  3. Format of the record:
    1. details of flights flown under commercial air transport may be recorded in an electronic format maintained by the operator.
    2. In this case an operator should make the records of all flights operated by the pilot, including differences and familiarisation training, available upon request to the flight crew member concerned.

    3. for other types of flights in aeroplanes, helicopters and powered-lift aircraft, the pilot should record the details of the flights flown in the following logbook format, which may be kept in electronic format. All data set out in (a) should be included.
    4. For sailplanes, balloons and airships, a suitable format, which may be electronic, should be used. That format should contains the relevant items mentioned in (a) and additional information specific to the type of operation.

PILOT LOGBOOK

PILOT LOGBOOK

PILOT LOGBOOK

PILOT LOGBOOK

PILOT LOGBOOK

INSTRUCTIONS FOR USE

  1. FCL.050 requires holders of a pilot licence to record details of all flights flown. This logbook enables pilot licence holders to record flying experience in a manner which will facilitate this process while providing a permanent record of the licence holders flying. Pilots who fly regularly aeroplanes and helicopters or other aircraft categories are recommended to maintain separate logbooks for each aircraft category.
  2. Flight crew logbook entries should be made as soon as practicable after any flight undertaken. All entries in the flight crew logbook should comply with the following :
    1. in case of paper records, they should be made in ink or indelible pencil, or
    2. in case of electronic records, they should be made and kept in a way to be readily available at the request of a competent authority, and contain all relevant items that are mentioned in (a), certified by the pilot, and in a format acceptable by the competent authority.
  3. The particulars of every flight in the course of which the holder of a flight crew licence acts as a member of the operating crew of an aircraft are to be recorded in the appropriate columns using one line for each flight, provided that if an aircraft carries out a number of flights upon the same day returning on each occasion to the same place of departure and the interval between successive flights does not exceed 30 minutes, such series of flights may be recorded as a single entry.
  4. Flight time is recorded:
    1. for aeroplanes, touring motor gliders and powered-lift aircraft, from the moment an aircraft first moves to taking off until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight;
    2. for helicopters, from the moment a helicopter’s rotor blades start turning until the moment the helicopter finally comes to rest at the end of the flight, and the rotor blades are stopped;
    3. for airships, from the moment an airship is released from the mast to taking off until the moment the airship finally comes to rest at the end of the flight, and is secured on the mast;
  5. When an aircraft carries two or more pilots as members of the operating crew, one of them shall, before the flight commences, be designated by the operator as the aircraft PIC, according to operational requirements, who may delegate the conduct of the flight to another suitably qualified pilot. All flying carried out as PIC is entered in the logbook as ‘PIC’. A pilot flying as ‘PICUS’ or ‘SPIC’ enters flying time as ‘PIC’ but all such entries are to be certified by the PIC or FI in the ‘Remarks’ column of the logbook.
  6. Notes on recording of flight time:
    1. column 1: enter the date (dd/mm/yy) on which the flight commences;
    2. column 2 or 3: enter the place of departure and destination either in full or the internationally recognised three or four letter designator. All times should be in UTC;
    3. column 5: indicate whether the operation was SP or MP, and for SP operation whether SE or ME;
    4. PILOT LOGBOOK

    5. column 6: total time of flight may be entered in hours and minutes or decimal notation as desired;
    6. column 7: enter the name(s) of PIC or SELF as appropriate;
    7. column 8: indicate the number of landings as pilot flying by day or night;
    8. column 9: enter flight time undertaken at night or under instrument flight rules if applicable;
    9. column 10: pilot function time:
      1. enter flight time as PIC, SPIC and PICUS as PIC;
      2. all time recorded as SPIC or PICUS is countersigned by the aircraft PIC/FI in the ‘remarks’ (column 12);
      3. instructor time should be recorded as appropriate and also entered as PIC.
    10. column 11: FSTD:
      1. for any FSTD enter the type of aircraft and qualification number of the device. For other flight training devices enter either FNPT I or FNPT II as appropriate;
      2. total time of session includes all exercises carried out in the device, including pre- and after-flight checks;l
      3. enter the type of exercise performed in the ‘remarks’ (column 12), for example operator proficiency check, revalidation.
    11. column 12: the ‘remarks’ column may be used to record details of the flight at the holder’s discretion. The following entries, however, should always be made:
      1. instrument flight time undertaken as part of the training for a licence or rating;
      2. details of all skill tests and proficiency checks;
      3. signature of PIC if the pilot is recording flight time as SPIC or PICUS;
      4. signature of instructor if flight is part of an SEP or TMG class rating revalidation.
  7. When each page is completed, accumulated flight time or hours should be entered in the appropriate columns and certified by the pilot in the ‘remarks’ column.
  8. PILOT LOGBOOK

FCL.055 Language proficiency - Regulation (EU) 2020/359

  1. General. Aeroplane, helicopter, powered-lift and airship pilots required to use the radio telephone shall not exercise the privileges of their licences and ratings unless they have a language proficiency endorsement on their licence in either English or the language used for radio communications involved in the flight. The endorsement shall indicate the language, the proficiency level and the validity date, and it shall be obtained in accordance with a procedure established by a competent authority. The minimum acceptable proficiency level is the operational level (Level 4) in accordance with Appendix 2 to this Annex.
  2. The applicant for a language proficiency endorsement shall demonstrate, in accordance with Appendix 2 to this Annex, at least an operational level of language proficiency both in the use of phraseologies and plain language to an assessor certified by a competent authority or a language-testing body approved by a competent authority as applicable. To do so, the applicant shall demonstrate the ability to:
    1. communicate effectively in voice-only and in face-to-face situations;
    2. communicate on common and work-related topics with accuracy and clarity;
    3. use appropriate communicative strategies to exchange messages and to recognise and resolve misunderstandings in a general or work-related context;
    4. handle successfully the linguistic challenges presented by a complication or unexpected turn of events which occurs within the context of a routine work situation or communicative task with which they are otherwise familiar; and
    5. use a dialect or accent which is intelligible to the aeronautical community.
  3. Except for pilots who have demonstrated language proficiency at an expert level (level 6) in accordance with Appendix 2 to this Annex, the language proficiency endorsement shall be re-evaluated every:
    1. 4 years, if the level demonstrated is operational level (level 4); or
    2. 6 years, if the level demonstrated is extended level (level 5).
  4. Specific requirements for holders of an instrument rating (IR). By way of derogation from the paragraphs above, holders of an IR shall have demonstrated the ability to use the English language at the appropriate proficiency level as defined in Appendix 2 to this Annex.
  5. The demonstration of language proficiency and the use of the English language for IR holders shall be done through a method of assessment established by any competent authority.

AMC1 FCL.055 Language proficiency - ED Decision 2020/005/R

GENERAL

  1. The method of assessment of the language proficiency level (hereafter: assessment) should be designed to reflect a range of tasks undertaken by pilots but with specific focus on language rather than operational procedures.
  2. The assessment should determine the applicant’s ability to:
    1. communicate effectively using standard R/T phraseology;
    2. deliver and understand messages in plain language in both usual and unusual situations that necessitate departure from standard R/T phraseology.

Note: refer to the ‘Manual on the Implementation of ICAO Language Proficiency Requirements’ (ICAO Doc 9835), Appendix A Part III and Appendix B for further guidance.

ASSESSMENT

  1. The assessment may be subdivided into three elements, as follows:
    1. listening: assessment of comprehension;
    2. speaking: assessment of pronunciation, fluency, structure and vocabulary;
    3. interaction.
  2. The three elements mentioned above may be combined and they can be covered by using a wide variety of means or technologies.
  3. Where appropriate, some or all of these elements may be achieved through the use of the R/T testing arrangements.
  4. When the elements of the testing are assessed separately, the final assessment should be consolidated in the language proficiency endorsement issued by the competent authority.
  5. The assessment may be conducted during one of the several existing checking or training activities, such as licence issue or rating issue and revalidation, line training, operator line checks or proficiency checks.
  6. The competent authority may use its own resources in developing or conducting the language proficiency assessment, or may delegate this task to language testing bodies.
  7. The competent authority should establish an appeal procedure for applicants.
  8. The holder of a licence should receive a statement containing the level and validity of the language endorsements.
  9. Where the assessment method for the English language established by the competent authority is equivalent to that established for the assessment of use of the English language in accordance with AMC2 FCL.055, the same assessment may be used for both purposes.

BASIC ASSESSMENT REQUIREMENTS

  1. The aim of the assessment is to determine the ability of an applicant for a pilot licence or a licence holder to speak and understand the language used for R/T communications.
    1. The assessment should determine the ability of the applicant to use both:
      1. standard R/T phraseology;
      2. plain language, in situations when standardised phraseology cannot serve an intended transmission.
    2. The assessment should include:
      1. voice-only and face-to-face situations;
      2. common, concrete and work-related topics for pilots.
    3. The applicants should demonstrate their linguistic ability in dealing with an unexpected turn of events, and in solving apparent misunderstandings.
    4. The assessment should determine the applicant’s speaking and listening abilities. Indirect assessments, of grammatical knowledge, reading and writing, are not appropriate.
    5. The assessment should determine the language skills of the applicant in the following areas:
      1. pronunciation:
        1. the extent to which the pronunciation, stress, rhythm and intonation are influenced by the applicant’s first language or national variations;
        2. how much they interfere with ease of understanding.
      2. structure:
        1. the ability of the applicant to use both basic and complex grammatical structures;
        2. the extent to which the applicant’s errors interfere with the meaning.
      3. vocabulary:
        1. the range and accuracy of the vocabulary used;
        2. the ability of the applicant to paraphrase successfully when lacking vocabulary.
      4. fluency:
        1. tempo;
        2. hesitancy;
        3. rehearsed versus spontaneous speech;
        4. use of discourse markers and connectors.
      5. comprehension:
        1. on common, concrete and work-related topics;
        2. when confronted with a linguistic or situational complication or an unexpected turn of events.
        3. Note: the accent or variety of accents used in the test material should be sufficiently intelligible for an international community of users.

      6. interactions:
        1. quality of response (immediate, appropriate, and informative);
        2. the ability to initiate and maintain exchanges:
          1. on common, concrete and work-related topics;
          2. when dealing with an unexpected turn of events.
        3. the ability to deal with apparent misunderstandings by checking, confirming or clarifying.
        4. Note: the assessment of the language skills in the areas mentioned above is conducted using the rating scale in AMC2 FCL.055.

ASSESSORS

  1. It is essential that the persons responsible for language proficiency assessment (‘assessors’) are suitably trained and qualified. They should be either aviation specialists (for example current or former flight crew members or air traffic controllers), or language specialists with additional aviation related training. An alternative approach would be to form an assessment team consisting of an operational expert and a language expert.
    1. The assessors should be trained on the specific requirements of the assessment.
    2. The assessors should not test applicants to whom they have given language training.

CRITERIA FOR THE ACCEPTABILITY OF LANGUAGE-TESTING BODIES

  1. To ensure an impartial assessment process, the language assessment should be independent of the language training.
    1. To be accepted, the language-testing bodies should demonstrate:
      1. appropriate management and staffing;
      2. quality system established and maintained to ensure compliance with, and adequacy of, assessment requirements, standards and procedures.
    2. The quality system established by a language-testing body should address the following:
      1. management;
      2. policy and strategy;
      3. processes;
      4. the relevant provisions of ICAO or Part-FCL, standards and assessment procedures;
      5. organisational structure;
      6. responsibility for the development, establishment and management of the quality system;
      7. documentation;
      8. quality assurance programme;
      9. human resources and training (initial and recurrent);
      10. assessment requirements;
      11. customer satisfaction.
    3. The assessment documentation and records should be kept for a period of time determined by the competent authority and made available to this competent authority, on request.
    4. The assessment documentation should include at least the following:
      1. assessment objectives;
      2. assessment layout, time scale, technologies used, assessment samples, voice samples;
      3. assessment criteria and standards (at least for the levels 4, 5 and 6 of the rating scale mentioned in AMC2 FCL.055);
      4. documentation demonstrating the assessment validity, relevance and reliability;
      5. assessment procedures and responsibilities:
        1. preparation of individual assessment;
        2. administration: location(s), identity check and invigilation, assessment discipline, confidentiality or security;
        3. reporting and documentation provided to the competent authority or to the applicant, including sample certificate;
        4. retention of documents and records.
        5. Note: refer to the ‘Manual on the Implementation of ICAO Language Proficiency Requirements’ (ICAO Doc 9835) for further guidance.

AMC2 FCL.055 Language proficiency - ED Decision 2011/016/R

Voir règlementation.

AMC3 FCL.055 Language proficiency - ED Decision 2011/016/R

Voir règlementation.

FCL.060 Recent experience - Regulation (EU) 2020/359

  1. Aeroplanes, helicopters, powered-lift aircraft and airships. A pilot shall not operate an aircraft in commercial air transport or to carry passengers:
    1. as PIC or co-pilot unless he/she has carried out, in the preceding 90 days, at least 3 take-offs, approaches and landings in an aircraft of the same type or class or an FFS representing that type or class. The 3 take-offs and landings shall be performed in either multi-pilot or single-pilot operations, depending on the privileges held by the pilot; and
    2. as PIC at night unless he/she:
      1. has carried out in the preceding 90 days at least 1 take-off, approach and landing at night as a pilot flying in an aircraft of the same type or class or an FFS representing that type or class; or
      2. holds an IR;
    3. as cruise relief co-pilot unless he/she:
      1. has complied with the requirements in (b)(1); or
      2. has carried out in the preceding 90 days at least 3 sectors as a cruise relief pilot on the same type or class of aircraft; or
      3. has carried out recency and refresher flying skill training in an FFS at intervals not exceeding 90 days. This refresher training may be combined with the operator’s refresher training prescribed in the relevant requirements of Part-ORO.
    4. When a pilot has the privilege to operate more than one type of aeroplane with similar handling and operation characteristics, the 3 take-offs, approaches and landings required in (1) may be performed as defined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Part-21.
    5. When a pilot has the privilege to operate more than one type of non-complex helicopter with similar handling and operation characteristics, as defined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Part-21, the 3 take-offs, approaches and landings required in (1) may be performed in just one of the types, provided that the pilot has completed at least 2 hours of flight in each of the types of helicopter, during the preceding 6 months.
  2. Specific requirements for commercial air transport:
  3. Voir règlementation.

AMC1 FCL.060(b)(1) Recent experience - ED Decision 2011/016/R

When a pilot needs to carry out one or more flights with an instructor or an examiner to comply with the requirement of FCL.060(b)(1) before the pilot can carry passengers, the instructor or examiner on board those flights will not be considered as a passenger.

GM1 FCL.060(b)(1) Recent experience - ED Decision 2011/016/R

AEROPLANES, HELICOPTERS, POWERED-LIFT, AIRSHIPS AND SAILPLANES

If a pilot or a PIC is operating under the supervision of an instructor to comply with the required three take-offs, approaches and landings, no passengers may be on board.

AMC1 FCL.060(b)(5) Recent experience - ED Decision 2011/016/R

NON-COMPLEX HELICOPTERS

Grouping of non-complex helicopters with similar handling and operational characteristics:

  1. Group 1: Bell 206/206L, Bell 407;
  2. Group 2: Hughes 369, MD 500N, MD 520N, MD 600;
  3. Group 3: SA 341/342, EC 120;
  4. Group 4: SA 313/318, SA 315/316/319, AS 350, EC 130;
  5. Group 5: all types listed in AMC1 FCL.740.H(a)(3) and R 22 and R 44.

FCL.065 Curtailment of privileges of licence holders aged 60 years or more in commercial air transport - Regulation (EU) 2020/359

  1. Age 60-64. Aeroplanes and helicopters. The holder of a pilot licence who has attained the age of 60 years shall not act as a pilot of an aircraft engaged in commercial air transport except as a member of a multi-pilot crew.
  2. Age 65. Holders of a pilot licence who has attained the age of 65 years shall not act as a pilot of an aircraft that is engaged in commercial air transport.

FCL.070 Revocation, suspension and limitation of licences, ratings and certificates - Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

  1. Licences, ratings and certificates issued in accordance with this Part may be limited, suspended or revoked by the competent authority when the pilot does not comply with the requirements of this Part, Part-Medical or the applicable operational requirements, in accordance with the conditions and procedures laid down in Part-ARA.
  2. When the pilot has his/her licence suspended or revoked, he/she shall immediately return the licence or certificate to the competent authority.